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FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS . . .

Q. How can I tell if a church is the one that I read about in the New Testament?
A. You can't tell by the name alone. Just a name is not enough to identify an individual. You would want to look at all of the characteristics to insure you have the right person. Likewise, to be the church that Christ built, we must follow the pattern of the New Testament church. Before the first century was over, the Lord was already displeased with some of the congregations (Rev. 2-3). The passage indicates that unless they changed, the Lord would no longer consider those congregations to be part of His church.

Q. How come you meet in houses while others meet in church buildings?
A. The New Testament clearly teaches that Christians met for worship in members homes (Acts 2:46; 5:42; 8:3; 12:12; 20:20; Rom 16:5; 1 Cor 16:19; Col 4:15; Phile 2; 2 Jn 10; this is the approved apostilic example), yet they evangelized everywhere (the temple, synagogues, market places, ect), and we do the same. They had the means and the ability to purchase buildings exclusively for assembling, but instead of doing such and mimicking the Old Testament system, they chose to sell their surplus property and give to needy saints (Acts 4:34-35). It wasn't until the time of Constantine (early AD 300's) after the joining of church and state that physical buildings were employed by the church soley as meeting places, clearly this is a tradition of men (Mt 15:9) and not of God, therefore we must always ask the question concerning our traditions "do they make void the word of God (Mt 15:6)?" For more info on house churches click here

Q. Why don't you use a choir, an organ, or some other type of musical insrument in worship to God?
A. The commandment to the early church was "speaking to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs" (Eph. 5:19). “Speaking” here means to talk, utter words. Words are the medium of choice by the Almighty, not humming, making noises likened to instruments, but that which can be understood and edifies. 1 Cor 14:26 teaches that all things done in the assembly are to be that which edifies, educates the saints. "To yourselves" is a reflexive pronoun, which indicates "action of the subject upon itself" this is not reciprocal, which would allow one group to sing (such as a choir), and then another (such as the rest of the congregation), but rather this group (one plurality) is acting, speaking, singing to itself (and unto God), it is one event, thus this verse only authorizes congregational singing. There are two basic types of music, instrumental and vocal, the command here is to "sing" which includes only vocal music, this therefore excludes the use of mechanical instruments as seen in Old Testament. We are not under Moses but Christ, He has been given "all authority" (Mt 28:18), that leaves no authority left for Moses, in fact, the person that attempts to justify religious practice by going back to the law of Moses is severed from Christ, they have fallen from grace (Gal 5:4). There is no example or command from God for an instrument to be used in the New Testament. Men introduced instruments into the worship service about 600 years after the death of Christ, in fact the word "accapella" means "in the style of the church." Christ stated "But in vain do they worship me, teaching as their precepts the commandments of men" (Mt 15:9), thus worshipping God as He hath not commanded (will worship; Col 2:23), does result in vain (empty) worship.

Q. How often do you have communion?
A. On the first day of every week (Acts 20:7). Also 1 Cor 16:2 (ESV, NASB, YLT) implies that the common assembly was to take place on "every" first day of the week; these facts can also be verified by early uninspired Christian writings; (e.g. Ante-Nicene Fathers, vol. 1, p. 185-186, The First Apology Of Justin, Justin Martyr).

Q. What is meant by the phrase "fruit of the vine" as seen in Mt 26:29; Mk 14:29; Lk 22:18?
A. For the answer click HERE.

Q. Do you observe the Lord's Supper as a full meal as many house churches do today?
A. ANSWER COMING SOON

Q. What title should I use in speaking to your preacher?
A. The Bible does not give the preacher a title such as "pastor" or "reverend". "Pastors" pertain to those men, also known as elders, bishops, or presbyters who have the spiritual oversight of a congregation (1 Tim. 3:1-7; 1 Pet. 5:1-4). The word "reverend" is used only one time in the Bible, and it is speaking of God (Psa. 111:9). Jesus warns against such titles (Matt. 23:5-12). Although the work of the preacher may be described as that of a minister, or evangelist, there is no special title by which he is to be addressed. Therefore, address the preacher in the same manner as you would any other man.

Q. Does the word of God authorize women to be preachers or teachers of men?
A. This question is clearly answered by the NT, that vehicle through which Christ rules over "all things to the church which is His body" (Eph 1:22-23), the answer can be seen in 1 Tim 2:11-15 . . .

1Ti 2:11 Let a woman learn in quietness with all subjection.

There is a contrast being made here . . .
In mixed company (males and females) women are to learn, not to teach (from an authoritative position) They are to be in subjection, not domination.

The Gr word here for "quietness" (silence; KJV) here is . . .
ησυχία; hēsuchia
Thayer Definition:
1) quietness
1a) description of the life of one who stays at home doing his own work, and does not officiously meddle with the affairs of others
2) silence
Part of Speech: noun feminine

It does not mean absolute silence, or the woman would not be able to fulfill Eph 5:19; Col 3:16; “singing one to another and unto God”

The quietness in view here is that of due acceptance of authoritative roles God has established, specifically here respect for God's rule of prohibiting women from taking over the public worship, and the quiet acceptance of their womanly role as childbearers and mothers of the human race.

Normally, in the asking of questions in interactive teaching situations, and in such things as the singing or scripture readings, women do not violate this passage by their participation in such things. Yet they could violate it if they do so in a forceful or demanding manner. The thrust is that of demeanor (1 Pet 3:1-4). . .

1Pe 3:1 In like manner, ye wives, be in subjection to your own husbands; that, even if any obey not the word, they may without the word be gained by the behavior of their wives;
1Pe 3:2 beholding your chaste behavior coupled with fear.
1Pe 3:3 Whose adorning let it not be the outward adorning of braiding the hair, and of wearing jewels of gold, or of putting on apparel;
1Pe 3:4 but let it be the hidden man of the heart, in the incorruptible apparel of a meek and quiet spirit, which is in the sight of God of great price.

1Ti 2:12 But I permit not a woman to teach, nor to have dominion over a man, but to be in quietness.

The Gr word for "teach" here is . . .
διδάσκω; didaskō
Thayer Definition:
1) to teach
1a) to hold discourse with others in order to instruct them, deliver didactic discourses
1b) to be a teacher
1c) to discharge the office of a teacher, conduct one’s self as a teacher
2) to teach one
2a) to impart instruction
2b) instill doctrine into one
2c) the thing taught or enjoined
2d) to explain or expound a thing
2f) to teach one something
Part of Speech: verb

Contextually it would mean to deliver didactic discourses This kind of teaching a woman is not to do in an assembly with men. This is an authoritative roll as would be done by an evangelist, like Titus . . .

Tit 2:15 These things speak and exhort and reprove with all authority. Let no man despise thee.

Yet women do teach in the assembly by. . .

Eph 5:19 speaking one to another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs.

Col 3:16 . . . teaching and admonishing one another with psalms and hymns and spiritual songs . . .

Yet this type of teaching is not authoritative over a man.

Women can teach or lead in an assembly where no men are present
Women can teach other women (Tit 2:2-5)
Women can teach men in conjunction with her husband privately as Priscilla did, with her husband concerning Apollos (Acts 18:26)

This is not merely dealing with a local situation such as only at Ephesus, or Corinth, ect but for all the churches. Look at the beginning of 1 Cor, this statement is made . . .

1Co 1:2 unto the church of God which is at Corinth, even them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all that call upon the name of our Lord Jesus Christ in every place, their Lord and ours:

Paul taught the same thing in every church . . .

1Co 4:17 For this cause have I sent unto you Timothy, who is my beloved and faithful child in the Lord, who shall put you in remembrance of my ways which are in Christ, even as I teach everywhere in every church.

Thus these are universal statements that apply to all. This was Gods plan from the beginning

1Ti 2:13 For Adam was first formed, then Eve;
1Ti 2:14 and Adam was not beguiled, but the woman being beguiled hath fallen into transgression:

The reason for these regulations go back to creation, man, being first created was thereby also given the pre-eminence. This does not make man any better nor woman any less, just as Christ is no less than the Father, nor a child in view of its parents, these are just God's authoritative chains so to speak, designed to compliment each other and ultimately bring the glory to God. Eve’s first transgression was that she took the leadership role which was not hers, she should have taken her subordinate God given position (1 Cor 11:3).

1Co 11:3 But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God.

Adam was not beguiled, he was well aware of the sin which he was committing, he followed her lead. So what we see here is a role reversal of that which God intended. Thus Adam was more to blame than Eve, he should have stepped in, and took the authoritative position.

1Ti 2:15 but she shall be saved through her child-bearing, if they continue in faith and love and sanctification with sobriety.

The word “childbearing” here is the Gr word "teknogonias," which includes the raising of the children, not just childbirth. This is not talking about salvation from sin, but rather . . .
The woman is saved from the error of exercising authority as a man, over man by accepting and performing her God given role of subordination and rearing the family, which is to be overseen by the authority of the husband (1 Tim 3:4, 12; Jos 24:15)

If this is talking about salvation from sin, then only women who bear and raise children are the only women that can be saved.
That would be out of the context, it would make God a respecter of persons and would oppose other passages of Scripture (Jn 3:16; Gal 3:28).

“if they continue in faith and love and sanctification with sobriety.”

Note the change in pronouns. All Christians, man and woman are to walk in these. These are essential elements of the Christian life.

To twist this section of scripture or others like it such as 1 Cor 14:33-34 and attempt to make it say something which it clearly does not, one does to their own destruction (2 Pet 3:16).

Another way that many have attempted to do away with this and like passages is to assert that they are not inspired of God, again, they do so to their own demise (Luke 9:26), there is good evidence that these and other similar passages are authentic and what we are seeing in our day is nothing more than an attempt to make the gospel conform to an ever changing society, let us rather teach society to conform to the gospel (Rom 12:2), all one has to do is go back 100 years or so and see what the various religious bodies were believing and teaching concerning this matter, and for the most part it was exactly what the bible states, God's word was once for all time delivered in the 1st century (Jude 3), and it is just as binding as the day it was miraculously revealed and confirmed and will be that standard which will determine whether one enters into heaven or hell (John 12:48; Rom 2:16; Rev 20:12), let us therefore give the more diligence to make our calling and election sure (2 Pet 1:10) and obey God rather than men (Acts 4:19; 5:29).

Q. Do you not then hold all participatory assemblies as per 1 Cor 14:26 as many do today?
A. ANSWER COMING SOON

Q. Is the church of Christ a denomination?
A. The idea of a denomination is one entity which is composed of a number of parts. The church, which the Lord built, is not composed of denominations. There is to be unity (1 Cor. 1:10-15). Only one Gospel is to be preached (Gal. 1:6-9), the same things were taught at every congregation (1 Cor 4:17). Also, there is but one body, which is the church, and Christ is the head (Eph. 1:20-23, 4:4). In the New Testament, you cannot find different churches with different names and doctrines. It was the prayer of Jesus that His followers be one, even as He and the Father are one (John 17:21), in the context, John 17:20 teaches that this unity would be established by believers under that standard of "their (the apostle's) word" which is "the apostles doctrine" (Acts 2:42), that one Gospel (Gal 1:6-9), the New Testament, the doctrine of Christ (2 Jn 9), the once and for all delivered faith (Jude 3), it is "all the Truth" (John 16:13; 17:17), and there is no other outside of "all," of which originated from the Father (John 12:49; 17:8, 14), and its that which was forever settled (Ps 119:89), already loosed and bound ("predetermined"; Mt 16:19; 18:18) by Him in heaven, and it is to be practiced without any additions or subtractions (1 Cor 4:6). A human formulated creed is not acceptable, if it has any more than the Bible, it has too much, if it has any less that the Bible, it has too little, if it has the exact same teachings as the Bible, we do not need it, we have the Bible.

Q. Will only members of the church of Christ be saved?
A. Jesus purchased the church with His blood (Acts 20:28). He is the Saviour of the body/church (Eph. 5:23), and the Lord added the saved to the church upon obedience to the gospel (Acts 2:47; Rom 6:17; Heb 5:9). There is no indication of salvation outside of the Lord's church, yet the name "church of Christ" does not insure that the congregation under contemplation is not apostate, in fact the majority of congregations designated as "church of Christ" do not allow the Lord to exercise His headship over them in "all things" (Eph 1:22-23), but rather have rationalized themselves away from the one Truth and are not His, they have lost their lampstands (Rev 2-3).

Q. But, aren't there good, religious people in every denomination who will be saved?
A. I am sure that there are both good and religious people in denominations, but they teach many ways of salvation, this is condemned in the Bible (Gal 1:6-9; Jude 3). The Bible teaches only one (Rom 1:16; Eph 4:5). If a person becomes a Christian, as the Bible teaches, yet continues to support error, one cannot expect God to be pleased and grant eternal life (2 John 9-11).

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 Salute the church that is in their house . . .
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